This is a question that we receive from time-to-time.  After doing some legal research to make sure that my instincts were correct, I can report that I was unable to find any statute that directly states that driving barefoot or without shoes is a violation of any statute.  However, there might be a circumstance where a driver could be found to be careless for not wearing shoes and cited under that particular traffic statute (an example might be if the driver’s bare foot slipped off of the brake and caused the car to crash into something.)

From a civil perspective, I can foresee circumstances where a driver could be held liable for negligence for not wearing shoes (see the example above.)

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